1
MCQ
A 28-year-old woman presents with 5 days of painless visual loss in the right eye associated with discomfort on eye movement. Visual acuity is 6/36 in the right eye (corrected 6/6 left eye). Fundoscopy shows a relative afferent pupillary defect (RAPD) on the right. There is no history of previous neurological events. MRI brain with gadolinium shows an enhancing right optic nerve lesion and three non-enhancing T2/FLAIR periventricular white matter lesions, all greater than 3 mm.
According to the 2017 McDonald criteria, which of the following statements is most accurate regarding this presentation?
Seleccione la respuesta 1 (1 elección correcta).